Hi All
One of our senior guys is currently leading a team of 5-6 employees in New York. He doesn't have a current contract as far as I know (neither a UK nor a US one) but worked for the UK operation for a long time, working his way up. I found a contract (fixed term) for a previous role in 2012 or so, nothing since.
I am preparing to start work on an employee handbook for the New York office and there is pressure on me to "match" UK provisions in New York (particularly in relation to leave entitlements, holiday, paternity/maternity/parental leave etc.). I don't regard this as the best way forward, in the UK we are providing statutory benefits only so if we match UK entitlements in the US, we end up giving statutory only to UK employees and way more than statutory to US employees - which seems a bit unfair to the UK employees, given that US employees typically are paid much more and get agreed overtime etc (which is not available here).
My question concerns which country rules should govern his employment, in the absence of a current written contract which reflects his position and seniority in the company? I should add that he is on the US payroll and receives medical cover there. I am hoping that, if I could argue that his (unwritten) contract should still incorporate his expectations in line with UK legislation, he should then be entitled to similar levels of leave to the statutory ones in the UK. In other words, I would like to somehow "exempt" him from the US employee handbook, which could then be written, for the rest of the staff, without providing (by NY standards) insanely generous leave entitlements.
I would really appreciate your thoughts/views/comments!